are quotients by equivalence relations “better” than surjections?











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This might be a load of old nonsense.



I have always had it in my head that if $f:Xto Y$ is an injection, then $f$ has some sort of "canonical factorization" as a bijection $Xto f(X)$ followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Similarly if $g:Xto Y$ is a surjection, and if we define an equivalence relation on $X$ by $asim biff g(a)=g(b)$ and let $Q$ be the set of equivalence classes, then $g$ has a "canonical factorization" as a quotient $Xto Q$ followed by a bijection $Qto B$. Furthermore I'd always suspected that these two "canonical" factorizations were in some way dual to each other.



I mentioned this in passing to a room full of smart undergraduates today and one of them called me up on it afterwards, and I realised that I could not attach any real meaning to what I've just said above. I half-wondered whether subobject classifiers might have something to do with it but having looked up the definition I am not so sure that they help at all.



Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? (in my mind they've always been the "best kind of injections" somehow). Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients? I can't help thinking that there might be something in these ideas but I am not sure I have the language to express it. Maybe I'm just wrong, or maybe there's some ncatlab page somewhere which will explain to me what I'm trying to formalise here.










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  • I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
    – Kevin Buzzard
    2 hours ago






  • 2




    How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
    – Dylan Wilson
    2 hours ago










  • from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
    – Jacob White
    2 hours ago












  • A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago










  • each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago

















up vote
4
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This might be a load of old nonsense.



I have always had it in my head that if $f:Xto Y$ is an injection, then $f$ has some sort of "canonical factorization" as a bijection $Xto f(X)$ followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Similarly if $g:Xto Y$ is a surjection, and if we define an equivalence relation on $X$ by $asim biff g(a)=g(b)$ and let $Q$ be the set of equivalence classes, then $g$ has a "canonical factorization" as a quotient $Xto Q$ followed by a bijection $Qto B$. Furthermore I'd always suspected that these two "canonical" factorizations were in some way dual to each other.



I mentioned this in passing to a room full of smart undergraduates today and one of them called me up on it afterwards, and I realised that I could not attach any real meaning to what I've just said above. I half-wondered whether subobject classifiers might have something to do with it but having looked up the definition I am not so sure that they help at all.



Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? (in my mind they've always been the "best kind of injections" somehow). Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients? I can't help thinking that there might be something in these ideas but I am not sure I have the language to express it. Maybe I'm just wrong, or maybe there's some ncatlab page somewhere which will explain to me what I'm trying to formalise here.










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  • I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
    – Kevin Buzzard
    2 hours ago






  • 2




    How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
    – Dylan Wilson
    2 hours ago










  • from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
    – Jacob White
    2 hours ago












  • A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago










  • each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago















up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











This might be a load of old nonsense.



I have always had it in my head that if $f:Xto Y$ is an injection, then $f$ has some sort of "canonical factorization" as a bijection $Xto f(X)$ followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Similarly if $g:Xto Y$ is a surjection, and if we define an equivalence relation on $X$ by $asim biff g(a)=g(b)$ and let $Q$ be the set of equivalence classes, then $g$ has a "canonical factorization" as a quotient $Xto Q$ followed by a bijection $Qto B$. Furthermore I'd always suspected that these two "canonical" factorizations were in some way dual to each other.



I mentioned this in passing to a room full of smart undergraduates today and one of them called me up on it afterwards, and I realised that I could not attach any real meaning to what I've just said above. I half-wondered whether subobject classifiers might have something to do with it but having looked up the definition I am not so sure that they help at all.



Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? (in my mind they've always been the "best kind of injections" somehow). Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients? I can't help thinking that there might be something in these ideas but I am not sure I have the language to express it. Maybe I'm just wrong, or maybe there's some ncatlab page somewhere which will explain to me what I'm trying to formalise here.










share|cite|improve this question













This might be a load of old nonsense.



I have always had it in my head that if $f:Xto Y$ is an injection, then $f$ has some sort of "canonical factorization" as a bijection $Xto f(X)$ followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Similarly if $g:Xto Y$ is a surjection, and if we define an equivalence relation on $X$ by $asim biff g(a)=g(b)$ and let $Q$ be the set of equivalence classes, then $g$ has a "canonical factorization" as a quotient $Xto Q$ followed by a bijection $Qto B$. Furthermore I'd always suspected that these two "canonical" factorizations were in some way dual to each other.



I mentioned this in passing to a room full of smart undergraduates today and one of them called me up on it afterwards, and I realised that I could not attach any real meaning to what I've just said above. I half-wondered whether subobject classifiers might have something to do with it but having looked up the definition I am not so sure that they help at all.



Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? (in my mind they've always been the "best kind of injections" somehow). Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients? I can't help thinking that there might be something in these ideas but I am not sure I have the language to express it. Maybe I'm just wrong, or maybe there's some ncatlab page somewhere which will explain to me what I'm trying to formalise here.







ct.category-theory






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asked 2 hours ago









Kevin Buzzard

27.7k5116204




27.7k5116204












  • I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
    – Kevin Buzzard
    2 hours ago






  • 2




    How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
    – Dylan Wilson
    2 hours ago










  • from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
    – Jacob White
    2 hours ago












  • A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago










  • each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago




















  • I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
    – Kevin Buzzard
    2 hours ago






  • 2




    How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
    – Dylan Wilson
    2 hours ago










  • from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
    – Jacob White
    2 hours ago












  • A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago










  • each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
    – Alex Kruckman
    1 hour ago


















I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
– Kevin Buzzard
2 hours ago




I guess one could go all the way and say that if $f:Xto Y$ is an arbitrary map of sets then $f$ factors as a quotient by an equivalence relation $Xto X/sim$, followed by a bijection $X/simto f(X)$, followed by an inclusion $f(X)subseteq Y$. Is this a thing?
– Kevin Buzzard
2 hours ago




2




2




How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
– Dylan Wilson
2 hours ago




How could category theory ever tell the difference between an inclusion and an arbitrary injection? Dually: how could it tell the difference between "the" quotient map by an equivalence relation and an arbitrary surjection? If you move away from the category of sets, there is some distinction amongst good and bad epi/monomorphisms. See, e.g. "effective epimorphism" and related notions.
– Dylan Wilson
2 hours ago












from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
– Jacob White
2 hours ago






from the category theory perspective, the main fact for sets and functions is that every function factors into a surjection followed by an injection. However, from the perspective of category theory, you can't distinguish inclusion maps from injections, because you are only looking at objects and morphisms: the notion of 'element' is lost. However, for your other comment: there is the notion of factorization system. The same idea holds for groups or rings too: a group homomorphism $phi: G to H$ factors into $G to G/ker phi to phi(G) to H$.
– Jacob White
2 hours ago














A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
– Alex Kruckman
1 hour ago




A subobject of $A$ is an isomorphism class of monic arrows into $A$ ($fcolon Bto A$ and $f'colon B' to A$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $gcolon Bto B'$ such that $f = f'circ g$). Dually, a quotient object of $A$ is an isomorphism class of epic arrows out of $A$. I suppose you could view the category of sets as being equipped with an extra structure: a choice of a unique representative in each subobject class (the inclusion) and each quotient object class (the "actual quotient"). Then each monic arrow factors uniquely as an isomorphism followed by an inclusion, ...
– Alex Kruckman
1 hour ago












each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
– Alex Kruckman
1 hour ago






each epic arrow factors uniquely as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, and if an arbtirary map factors as an epic followed by a monic (as happens in the category of sets), then every map factors as an "actual quotient" followed by an isomorphism, followed by an inclusion.
– Alex Kruckman
1 hour ago












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The nLab page you're looking for is called factorization systems. Here is my favorite one, which I think answers your question. In any category with finite limits and colimits, every morphism $f : X to Y$ has a canonical factorization



$$X to text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f) to Y$$



where $text{im}(f)$, the regular image, is the equalizer of the cokernel pair of $f$ (this is the "nonabelian" version of "kernel of the cokernel") and $text{coim}(f)$, the regular coimage, is the coequalizer of the kernel pair of $f$ (again, the "nonabelian" version of "cokernel of the kernel"). These two constructions are categorically dual and so, among other things, the coimage-image factorization of $f$ in the opposite category is the same sequence of maps but in the opposite order.



In $text{Set}$, the coimage and image are both the image of a function in the usual sense, but computed in different ways, which I think match the distinction you're getting at. $text{coim}(f)$ is computed, more or less, by constructing the equivalence relation on $X$ defined by $x_1 sim x_2 Leftrightarrow f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then quotienting $X$ by it. $text{im}(f)$ is computed in a categorically dual way, although it looks a little strange at first: by first constructing the pushout $Y sqcup_X Y$, then isolating the subset of $Y$ of elements which are sent to the same element by both of the canonical maps $Y to Y sqcup_X Y$.



In particular, the factorization you want for an injection is the regular image factorization, and the factorization you want for a surjection is the regular coimage factorization, so they are in fact categorically dual. The full coimage-image factorization combines these.



It's a nontrivial theorem that the map $text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f)$ is an isomorphism in $text{Set}$. It's also an isomorphism in any abelian category and in $text{Grp}$ (this is an abstract form of the first isomorphism theorem), but in general it's just both a monomorphism and an epimorphism. A very instructive example is $text{Top}$, where $text{coim}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a quotient of $X$, and $text{im}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a subspace of $Y$. (Note that these coincide for compact Hausdorff spaces!)






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    It seems that you've got factorization of maps covered, so let me address the question of why canonical quotient maps and canonical inclusions are "better".



    Given a set $X$, in general there is a proper class of injections $Y to X$. However, many of these are isomorphic, where injections $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $k : Y to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$. The isomorphism classes of injections into $X$ are the subobjects of $X$. In fact, there are only set-many subobjects of $X$ (in category-theoretic language, sets form a well-powered category). It is pesky to work with set-many proper equivalence classes, so we instead look for a set $P(X)$ of injections into $X$, one from each isomorphism class. We may additionally require some nice properties, for instance, if $i : X to Y$ is in $P(X)$ and $j : Y to Z$ is in $P(Y)$, we would expect $j circ i : X to Z$ to be in $P(Z)$. One can come up with a wish-list of such nice closure conditions, here's another one: if $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are in $P(X)$, and there is (a unique) $k : X to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$, then $k$ is in $P(Z)$.



    We know the answer, of course, just take $P(X)$ to be the canonical subset inclusions into $X$, or just the subsets of $X$, since the canonical inclusions are determined by these. This is not the only choice of such representative inclusions, but it's a pretty good one.



    We may therefore say that the canonical inclusions of subsets are "better" because they are the canonical representatives of subobjects (equivalence classes of injections).



    The answer for quotient maps and surjections is dual. Consider equivalence classes of surjections, quotiented by isomorphism. There are only set-many such classes, therefore sets form a well-copowered category. (Some people say "cowell-powered" but then why not call it "ill-powered"?) This time we look for a set $Q(X)$ of surjections from $X$, each representing one equivalence class of surjections from $X$. We may take $Q(X)$ to be the set of all canonical quotient maps $X to X/{sim}$, or just the set of all equivalence classes on $X$. Once again, canonical quotient maps are "better" because they are the distinguished representatives of isomorphism classes of surjections.






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      Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients?




      This is a simple-minded answer, but I would say yes because there is a proper class of distinct injections into $Y$ --- the injecting set $X$ can live anywhere in the set-theoretic universe --- whereas inclusions into $Y$ are effectively just subsets of $Y$. Under the natural notion of equivalence for injections, distinct subsets give inequivalent injections, so you could say that going from injections to inclusions is a matter of selecting one distinguished, canonical element from each equivalence class of injections.



      I would say that the inclusions into $Y$ are classified by the subsets of $Y$, and similarly the quotients of $X$ are classified by the equivalence relations on $X$.






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        3 Answers
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        The nLab page you're looking for is called factorization systems. Here is my favorite one, which I think answers your question. In any category with finite limits and colimits, every morphism $f : X to Y$ has a canonical factorization



        $$X to text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f) to Y$$



        where $text{im}(f)$, the regular image, is the equalizer of the cokernel pair of $f$ (this is the "nonabelian" version of "kernel of the cokernel") and $text{coim}(f)$, the regular coimage, is the coequalizer of the kernel pair of $f$ (again, the "nonabelian" version of "cokernel of the kernel"). These two constructions are categorically dual and so, among other things, the coimage-image factorization of $f$ in the opposite category is the same sequence of maps but in the opposite order.



        In $text{Set}$, the coimage and image are both the image of a function in the usual sense, but computed in different ways, which I think match the distinction you're getting at. $text{coim}(f)$ is computed, more or less, by constructing the equivalence relation on $X$ defined by $x_1 sim x_2 Leftrightarrow f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then quotienting $X$ by it. $text{im}(f)$ is computed in a categorically dual way, although it looks a little strange at first: by first constructing the pushout $Y sqcup_X Y$, then isolating the subset of $Y$ of elements which are sent to the same element by both of the canonical maps $Y to Y sqcup_X Y$.



        In particular, the factorization you want for an injection is the regular image factorization, and the factorization you want for a surjection is the regular coimage factorization, so they are in fact categorically dual. The full coimage-image factorization combines these.



        It's a nontrivial theorem that the map $text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f)$ is an isomorphism in $text{Set}$. It's also an isomorphism in any abelian category and in $text{Grp}$ (this is an abstract form of the first isomorphism theorem), but in general it's just both a monomorphism and an epimorphism. A very instructive example is $text{Top}$, where $text{coim}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a quotient of $X$, and $text{im}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a subspace of $Y$. (Note that these coincide for compact Hausdorff spaces!)






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          4
          down vote













          The nLab page you're looking for is called factorization systems. Here is my favorite one, which I think answers your question. In any category with finite limits and colimits, every morphism $f : X to Y$ has a canonical factorization



          $$X to text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f) to Y$$



          where $text{im}(f)$, the regular image, is the equalizer of the cokernel pair of $f$ (this is the "nonabelian" version of "kernel of the cokernel") and $text{coim}(f)$, the regular coimage, is the coequalizer of the kernel pair of $f$ (again, the "nonabelian" version of "cokernel of the kernel"). These two constructions are categorically dual and so, among other things, the coimage-image factorization of $f$ in the opposite category is the same sequence of maps but in the opposite order.



          In $text{Set}$, the coimage and image are both the image of a function in the usual sense, but computed in different ways, which I think match the distinction you're getting at. $text{coim}(f)$ is computed, more or less, by constructing the equivalence relation on $X$ defined by $x_1 sim x_2 Leftrightarrow f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then quotienting $X$ by it. $text{im}(f)$ is computed in a categorically dual way, although it looks a little strange at first: by first constructing the pushout $Y sqcup_X Y$, then isolating the subset of $Y$ of elements which are sent to the same element by both of the canonical maps $Y to Y sqcup_X Y$.



          In particular, the factorization you want for an injection is the regular image factorization, and the factorization you want for a surjection is the regular coimage factorization, so they are in fact categorically dual. The full coimage-image factorization combines these.



          It's a nontrivial theorem that the map $text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f)$ is an isomorphism in $text{Set}$. It's also an isomorphism in any abelian category and in $text{Grp}$ (this is an abstract form of the first isomorphism theorem), but in general it's just both a monomorphism and an epimorphism. A very instructive example is $text{Top}$, where $text{coim}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a quotient of $X$, and $text{im}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a subspace of $Y$. (Note that these coincide for compact Hausdorff spaces!)






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            The nLab page you're looking for is called factorization systems. Here is my favorite one, which I think answers your question. In any category with finite limits and colimits, every morphism $f : X to Y$ has a canonical factorization



            $$X to text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f) to Y$$



            where $text{im}(f)$, the regular image, is the equalizer of the cokernel pair of $f$ (this is the "nonabelian" version of "kernel of the cokernel") and $text{coim}(f)$, the regular coimage, is the coequalizer of the kernel pair of $f$ (again, the "nonabelian" version of "cokernel of the kernel"). These two constructions are categorically dual and so, among other things, the coimage-image factorization of $f$ in the opposite category is the same sequence of maps but in the opposite order.



            In $text{Set}$, the coimage and image are both the image of a function in the usual sense, but computed in different ways, which I think match the distinction you're getting at. $text{coim}(f)$ is computed, more or less, by constructing the equivalence relation on $X$ defined by $x_1 sim x_2 Leftrightarrow f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then quotienting $X$ by it. $text{im}(f)$ is computed in a categorically dual way, although it looks a little strange at first: by first constructing the pushout $Y sqcup_X Y$, then isolating the subset of $Y$ of elements which are sent to the same element by both of the canonical maps $Y to Y sqcup_X Y$.



            In particular, the factorization you want for an injection is the regular image factorization, and the factorization you want for a surjection is the regular coimage factorization, so they are in fact categorically dual. The full coimage-image factorization combines these.



            It's a nontrivial theorem that the map $text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f)$ is an isomorphism in $text{Set}$. It's also an isomorphism in any abelian category and in $text{Grp}$ (this is an abstract form of the first isomorphism theorem), but in general it's just both a monomorphism and an epimorphism. A very instructive example is $text{Top}$, where $text{coim}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a quotient of $X$, and $text{im}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a subspace of $Y$. (Note that these coincide for compact Hausdorff spaces!)






            share|cite|improve this answer














            The nLab page you're looking for is called factorization systems. Here is my favorite one, which I think answers your question. In any category with finite limits and colimits, every morphism $f : X to Y$ has a canonical factorization



            $$X to text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f) to Y$$



            where $text{im}(f)$, the regular image, is the equalizer of the cokernel pair of $f$ (this is the "nonabelian" version of "kernel of the cokernel") and $text{coim}(f)$, the regular coimage, is the coequalizer of the kernel pair of $f$ (again, the "nonabelian" version of "cokernel of the kernel"). These two constructions are categorically dual and so, among other things, the coimage-image factorization of $f$ in the opposite category is the same sequence of maps but in the opposite order.



            In $text{Set}$, the coimage and image are both the image of a function in the usual sense, but computed in different ways, which I think match the distinction you're getting at. $text{coim}(f)$ is computed, more or less, by constructing the equivalence relation on $X$ defined by $x_1 sim x_2 Leftrightarrow f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then quotienting $X$ by it. $text{im}(f)$ is computed in a categorically dual way, although it looks a little strange at first: by first constructing the pushout $Y sqcup_X Y$, then isolating the subset of $Y$ of elements which are sent to the same element by both of the canonical maps $Y to Y sqcup_X Y$.



            In particular, the factorization you want for an injection is the regular image factorization, and the factorization you want for a surjection is the regular coimage factorization, so they are in fact categorically dual. The full coimage-image factorization combines these.



            It's a nontrivial theorem that the map $text{coim}(f) to text{im}(f)$ is an isomorphism in $text{Set}$. It's also an isomorphism in any abelian category and in $text{Grp}$ (this is an abstract form of the first isomorphism theorem), but in general it's just both a monomorphism and an epimorphism. A very instructive example is $text{Top}$, where $text{coim}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a quotient of $X$, and $text{im}(f)$ is the set-theoretic image topologized as a subspace of $Y$. (Note that these coincide for compact Hausdorff spaces!)







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 1 hour ago

























            answered 1 hour ago









            Qiaochu Yuan

            76.5k25315596




            76.5k25315596






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                It seems that you've got factorization of maps covered, so let me address the question of why canonical quotient maps and canonical inclusions are "better".



                Given a set $X$, in general there is a proper class of injections $Y to X$. However, many of these are isomorphic, where injections $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $k : Y to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$. The isomorphism classes of injections into $X$ are the subobjects of $X$. In fact, there are only set-many subobjects of $X$ (in category-theoretic language, sets form a well-powered category). It is pesky to work with set-many proper equivalence classes, so we instead look for a set $P(X)$ of injections into $X$, one from each isomorphism class. We may additionally require some nice properties, for instance, if $i : X to Y$ is in $P(X)$ and $j : Y to Z$ is in $P(Y)$, we would expect $j circ i : X to Z$ to be in $P(Z)$. One can come up with a wish-list of such nice closure conditions, here's another one: if $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are in $P(X)$, and there is (a unique) $k : X to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$, then $k$ is in $P(Z)$.



                We know the answer, of course, just take $P(X)$ to be the canonical subset inclusions into $X$, or just the subsets of $X$, since the canonical inclusions are determined by these. This is not the only choice of such representative inclusions, but it's a pretty good one.



                We may therefore say that the canonical inclusions of subsets are "better" because they are the canonical representatives of subobjects (equivalence classes of injections).



                The answer for quotient maps and surjections is dual. Consider equivalence classes of surjections, quotiented by isomorphism. There are only set-many such classes, therefore sets form a well-copowered category. (Some people say "cowell-powered" but then why not call it "ill-powered"?) This time we look for a set $Q(X)$ of surjections from $X$, each representing one equivalence class of surjections from $X$. We may take $Q(X)$ to be the set of all canonical quotient maps $X to X/{sim}$, or just the set of all equivalence classes on $X$. Once again, canonical quotient maps are "better" because they are the distinguished representatives of isomorphism classes of surjections.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  It seems that you've got factorization of maps covered, so let me address the question of why canonical quotient maps and canonical inclusions are "better".



                  Given a set $X$, in general there is a proper class of injections $Y to X$. However, many of these are isomorphic, where injections $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $k : Y to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$. The isomorphism classes of injections into $X$ are the subobjects of $X$. In fact, there are only set-many subobjects of $X$ (in category-theoretic language, sets form a well-powered category). It is pesky to work with set-many proper equivalence classes, so we instead look for a set $P(X)$ of injections into $X$, one from each isomorphism class. We may additionally require some nice properties, for instance, if $i : X to Y$ is in $P(X)$ and $j : Y to Z$ is in $P(Y)$, we would expect $j circ i : X to Z$ to be in $P(Z)$. One can come up with a wish-list of such nice closure conditions, here's another one: if $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are in $P(X)$, and there is (a unique) $k : X to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$, then $k$ is in $P(Z)$.



                  We know the answer, of course, just take $P(X)$ to be the canonical subset inclusions into $X$, or just the subsets of $X$, since the canonical inclusions are determined by these. This is not the only choice of such representative inclusions, but it's a pretty good one.



                  We may therefore say that the canonical inclusions of subsets are "better" because they are the canonical representatives of subobjects (equivalence classes of injections).



                  The answer for quotient maps and surjections is dual. Consider equivalence classes of surjections, quotiented by isomorphism. There are only set-many such classes, therefore sets form a well-copowered category. (Some people say "cowell-powered" but then why not call it "ill-powered"?) This time we look for a set $Q(X)$ of surjections from $X$, each representing one equivalence class of surjections from $X$. We may take $Q(X)$ to be the set of all canonical quotient maps $X to X/{sim}$, or just the set of all equivalence classes on $X$. Once again, canonical quotient maps are "better" because they are the distinguished representatives of isomorphism classes of surjections.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    It seems that you've got factorization of maps covered, so let me address the question of why canonical quotient maps and canonical inclusions are "better".



                    Given a set $X$, in general there is a proper class of injections $Y to X$. However, many of these are isomorphic, where injections $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $k : Y to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$. The isomorphism classes of injections into $X$ are the subobjects of $X$. In fact, there are only set-many subobjects of $X$ (in category-theoretic language, sets form a well-powered category). It is pesky to work with set-many proper equivalence classes, so we instead look for a set $P(X)$ of injections into $X$, one from each isomorphism class. We may additionally require some nice properties, for instance, if $i : X to Y$ is in $P(X)$ and $j : Y to Z$ is in $P(Y)$, we would expect $j circ i : X to Z$ to be in $P(Z)$. One can come up with a wish-list of such nice closure conditions, here's another one: if $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are in $P(X)$, and there is (a unique) $k : X to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$, then $k$ is in $P(Z)$.



                    We know the answer, of course, just take $P(X)$ to be the canonical subset inclusions into $X$, or just the subsets of $X$, since the canonical inclusions are determined by these. This is not the only choice of such representative inclusions, but it's a pretty good one.



                    We may therefore say that the canonical inclusions of subsets are "better" because they are the canonical representatives of subobjects (equivalence classes of injections).



                    The answer for quotient maps and surjections is dual. Consider equivalence classes of surjections, quotiented by isomorphism. There are only set-many such classes, therefore sets form a well-copowered category. (Some people say "cowell-powered" but then why not call it "ill-powered"?) This time we look for a set $Q(X)$ of surjections from $X$, each representing one equivalence class of surjections from $X$. We may take $Q(X)$ to be the set of all canonical quotient maps $X to X/{sim}$, or just the set of all equivalence classes on $X$. Once again, canonical quotient maps are "better" because they are the distinguished representatives of isomorphism classes of surjections.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    It seems that you've got factorization of maps covered, so let me address the question of why canonical quotient maps and canonical inclusions are "better".



                    Given a set $X$, in general there is a proper class of injections $Y to X$. However, many of these are isomorphic, where injections $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are isomorphic if there is an isomorphism $k : Y to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$. The isomorphism classes of injections into $X$ are the subobjects of $X$. In fact, there are only set-many subobjects of $X$ (in category-theoretic language, sets form a well-powered category). It is pesky to work with set-many proper equivalence classes, so we instead look for a set $P(X)$ of injections into $X$, one from each isomorphism class. We may additionally require some nice properties, for instance, if $i : X to Y$ is in $P(X)$ and $j : Y to Z$ is in $P(Y)$, we would expect $j circ i : X to Z$ to be in $P(Z)$. One can come up with a wish-list of such nice closure conditions, here's another one: if $i : Y to X$ and $j : Z to X$ are in $P(X)$, and there is (a unique) $k : X to Z$ such that $i = j circ k$, then $k$ is in $P(Z)$.



                    We know the answer, of course, just take $P(X)$ to be the canonical subset inclusions into $X$, or just the subsets of $X$, since the canonical inclusions are determined by these. This is not the only choice of such representative inclusions, but it's a pretty good one.



                    We may therefore say that the canonical inclusions of subsets are "better" because they are the canonical representatives of subobjects (equivalence classes of injections).



                    The answer for quotient maps and surjections is dual. Consider equivalence classes of surjections, quotiented by isomorphism. There are only set-many such classes, therefore sets form a well-copowered category. (Some people say "cowell-powered" but then why not call it "ill-powered"?) This time we look for a set $Q(X)$ of surjections from $X$, each representing one equivalence class of surjections from $X$. We may take $Q(X)$ to be the set of all canonical quotient maps $X to X/{sim}$, or just the set of all equivalence classes on $X$. Once again, canonical quotient maps are "better" because they are the distinguished representatives of isomorphism classes of surjections.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 41 mins ago









                    Andrej Bauer

                    29.7k477163




                    29.7k477163






















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote














                        Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients?




                        This is a simple-minded answer, but I would say yes because there is a proper class of distinct injections into $Y$ --- the injecting set $X$ can live anywhere in the set-theoretic universe --- whereas inclusions into $Y$ are effectively just subsets of $Y$. Under the natural notion of equivalence for injections, distinct subsets give inequivalent injections, so you could say that going from injections to inclusions is a matter of selecting one distinguished, canonical element from each equivalence class of injections.



                        I would say that the inclusions into $Y$ are classified by the subsets of $Y$, and similarly the quotients of $X$ are classified by the equivalence relations on $X$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote














                          Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients?




                          This is a simple-minded answer, but I would say yes because there is a proper class of distinct injections into $Y$ --- the injecting set $X$ can live anywhere in the set-theoretic universe --- whereas inclusions into $Y$ are effectively just subsets of $Y$. Under the natural notion of equivalence for injections, distinct subsets give inequivalent injections, so you could say that going from injections to inclusions is a matter of selecting one distinguished, canonical element from each equivalence class of injections.



                          I would say that the inclusions into $Y$ are classified by the subsets of $Y$, and similarly the quotients of $X$ are classified by the equivalence relations on $X$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients?




                            This is a simple-minded answer, but I would say yes because there is a proper class of distinct injections into $Y$ --- the injecting set $X$ can live anywhere in the set-theoretic universe --- whereas inclusions into $Y$ are effectively just subsets of $Y$. Under the natural notion of equivalence for injections, distinct subsets give inequivalent injections, so you could say that going from injections to inclusions is a matter of selecting one distinguished, canonical element from each equivalence class of injections.



                            I would say that the inclusions into $Y$ are classified by the subsets of $Y$, and similarly the quotients of $X$ are classified by the equivalence relations on $X$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            Are inclusions in some way better than arbitrary injections? Are maps to sets of equivalence classes somehow better than arbitrary quotients?




                            This is a simple-minded answer, but I would say yes because there is a proper class of distinct injections into $Y$ --- the injecting set $X$ can live anywhere in the set-theoretic universe --- whereas inclusions into $Y$ are effectively just subsets of $Y$. Under the natural notion of equivalence for injections, distinct subsets give inequivalent injections, so you could say that going from injections to inclusions is a matter of selecting one distinguished, canonical element from each equivalence class of injections.



                            I would say that the inclusions into $Y$ are classified by the subsets of $Y$, and similarly the quotients of $X$ are classified by the equivalence relations on $X$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 1 hour ago









                            Nik Weaver

                            19.5k145121




                            19.5k145121






























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