What is the possessive case and the objective case of “ye?”












2














I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)










share|improve this question







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Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 4




    It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago










  • Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
    – sumelic
    3 hours ago










  • You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
    – BoldBen
    3 hours ago








  • 1




    @BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    3 hours ago
















2














I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)










share|improve this question







New contributor




Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 4




    It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago










  • Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
    – sumelic
    3 hours ago










  • You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
    – BoldBen
    3 hours ago








  • 1




    @BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    3 hours ago














2












2








2


1





I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)










share|improve this question







New contributor




Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)







possessives archaic objective-case






share|improve this question







New contributor




Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question







New contributor




Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question






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Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 4 hours ago









Leo DeCarlo

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111




New contributor




Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 4




    It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago










  • Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
    – sumelic
    3 hours ago










  • You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
    – BoldBen
    3 hours ago








  • 1




    @BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    3 hours ago














  • 4




    It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago










  • Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
    – sumelic
    3 hours ago










  • You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
    – BoldBen
    3 hours ago








  • 1




    @BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    3 hours ago








4




4




It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago




It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago












Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago




Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago












You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago






You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago






1




1




@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago




@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5














In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).






share|improve this answer





























    0















    Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
    your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.




    Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 2




      Which is which case?
      – Mitch
      4 hours ago






    • 2




      All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      3 hours ago










    • It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
      – John Lawler
      19 mins ago










    • This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
      – Jesse Steele
      18 mins ago











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5














    In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).






    share|improve this answer


























      5














      In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).






      share|improve this answer
























        5












        5








        5






        In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).






        share|improve this answer












        In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 4 hours ago









        Mark Beadles

        20.3k35890




        20.3k35890

























            0















            Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
            your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.




            Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 2




              Which is which case?
              – Mitch
              4 hours ago






            • 2




              All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              3 hours ago










            • It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
              – John Lawler
              19 mins ago










            • This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
              – Jesse Steele
              18 mins ago
















            0















            Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
            your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.




            Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 2




              Which is which case?
              – Mitch
              4 hours ago






            • 2




              All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              3 hours ago










            • It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
              – John Lawler
              19 mins ago










            • This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
              – Jesse Steele
              18 mins ago














            0












            0








            0







            Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
            your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.




            Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.






            share|improve this answer













            Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
            your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.




            Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 4 hours ago









            chasly from UK

            22.7k13068




            22.7k13068








            • 2




              Which is which case?
              – Mitch
              4 hours ago






            • 2




              All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              3 hours ago










            • It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
              – John Lawler
              19 mins ago










            • This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
              – Jesse Steele
              18 mins ago














            • 2




              Which is which case?
              – Mitch
              4 hours ago






            • 2




              All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              3 hours ago










            • It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
              – John Lawler
              19 mins ago










            • This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
              – Jesse Steele
              18 mins ago








            2




            2




            Which is which case?
            – Mitch
            4 hours ago




            Which is which case?
            – Mitch
            4 hours ago




            2




            2




            All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
            – Janus Bahs Jacquet
            3 hours ago




            All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
            – Janus Bahs Jacquet
            3 hours ago












            It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
            – John Lawler
            19 mins ago




            It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
            – John Lawler
            19 mins ago












            This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
            – Jesse Steele
            18 mins ago




            This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
            – Jesse Steele
            18 mins ago










            Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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