Can you aim for something behind an invisible creature to avoid the disadvantage?











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Inspired by the question here. I wanted to ask if someone knows that there is an invisible creature in front of him can the person declare an attack on something behind the invisible creature in order to hit the invisible creature without suffering the disadvantage that would have come with aiming at the invisible creature using the optional cover rules? Would it make a difference if the thing aimed at is a living thing or an object?










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  • 7




    I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
    – MivaScott
    2 days ago






  • 3




    What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
    – Mark Wells
    2 days ago

















up vote
8
down vote

favorite












Inspired by the question here. I wanted to ask if someone knows that there is an invisible creature in front of him can the person declare an attack on something behind the invisible creature in order to hit the invisible creature without suffering the disadvantage that would have come with aiming at the invisible creature using the optional cover rules? Would it make a difference if the thing aimed at is a living thing or an object?










share|improve this question




















  • 7




    I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
    – MivaScott
    2 days ago






  • 3




    What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
    – Mark Wells
    2 days ago















up vote
8
down vote

favorite









up vote
8
down vote

favorite











Inspired by the question here. I wanted to ask if someone knows that there is an invisible creature in front of him can the person declare an attack on something behind the invisible creature in order to hit the invisible creature without suffering the disadvantage that would have come with aiming at the invisible creature using the optional cover rules? Would it make a difference if the thing aimed at is a living thing or an object?










share|improve this question















Inspired by the question here. I wanted to ask if someone knows that there is an invisible creature in front of him can the person declare an attack on something behind the invisible creature in order to hit the invisible creature without suffering the disadvantage that would have come with aiming at the invisible creature using the optional cover rules? Would it make a difference if the thing aimed at is a living thing or an object?







dnd-5e invisibility targeting cover optional-rules






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edited Nov 16 at 7:35









V2Blast

18k248114




18k248114










asked Nov 16 at 6:47









Maiko Chikyu

5,31631548




5,31631548








  • 7




    I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
    – MivaScott
    2 days ago






  • 3




    What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
    – Mark Wells
    2 days ago
















  • 7




    I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
    – MivaScott
    2 days ago






  • 3




    What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
    – Mark Wells
    2 days ago










7




7




I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
– MivaScott
2 days ago




I put this too much in the cheesy column. It's akin to saying, "I'm not looking at the Basilisk, I'm looking at the wall behind it."
– MivaScott
2 days ago




3




3




What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
– Mark Wells
2 days ago






What's your character doing differently when you declare an attack that way, versus declaring that you attack the invisible creature?
– Mark Wells
2 days ago












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
11
down vote



accepted










If you are using the optional rule mentioned there and your DM does not say "Nope you can't do this, too cheesy" using Rule 0, yes, you can. But yeah, the DM can veto this independent of the rules if he finds it too abusable.



There are a few caveats here that might disappoint you, though.




If a creature is providing cover for the missed creature and the attack roll exceeds the AC of the covering creature, the covering creature is hit.




So, you only hit the invisible creature if you miss the original target and the attack roll exceeds the invisible creature AC. If the invisible creature has an AC higher than the target+2, for example, it actually becomes impossible to hit the invisible creature and attacking with disadvantage would be better (you always have at least a 0.25% chance of hitting). In other scenarios, it still might be better to attack with disadvantage than attack normally and only hit if you fail to hit the actual target.



It's also unclear how the DM will rule the attack if your target is, for example, a wall. He could rule that you always hit the wall and not even roll an attack.



Finally, your DM might ask you why you are targeting some random stuff (if it's an object) instead of the invisible creature (which presumably is the actual target). If your table is fine with this kind of metagame, it won't be a problem, otherwise you might have some hard time explaining why you decided to target the vase behind the invisible creature instead of trying to hit the actual creature.



TL;DR: The rules do allow it, but your DM might not allow it, and personally if I am the DM I can't think of a reason to allow it consistently (i.e. not a one time thing for the lulz) because it seems just... cheesy?






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  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – mxyzplk
    2 days ago


















up vote
1
down vote













No.



Because disadvantage is a mechanic, not something you 'avoid' in-character. The roll is the same in either case. PCs do not have concepts of the mechanics as mechanics, unless you're playing Deadpool.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted










    If you are using the optional rule mentioned there and your DM does not say "Nope you can't do this, too cheesy" using Rule 0, yes, you can. But yeah, the DM can veto this independent of the rules if he finds it too abusable.



    There are a few caveats here that might disappoint you, though.




    If a creature is providing cover for the missed creature and the attack roll exceeds the AC of the covering creature, the covering creature is hit.




    So, you only hit the invisible creature if you miss the original target and the attack roll exceeds the invisible creature AC. If the invisible creature has an AC higher than the target+2, for example, it actually becomes impossible to hit the invisible creature and attacking with disadvantage would be better (you always have at least a 0.25% chance of hitting). In other scenarios, it still might be better to attack with disadvantage than attack normally and only hit if you fail to hit the actual target.



    It's also unclear how the DM will rule the attack if your target is, for example, a wall. He could rule that you always hit the wall and not even roll an attack.



    Finally, your DM might ask you why you are targeting some random stuff (if it's an object) instead of the invisible creature (which presumably is the actual target). If your table is fine with this kind of metagame, it won't be a problem, otherwise you might have some hard time explaining why you decided to target the vase behind the invisible creature instead of trying to hit the actual creature.



    TL;DR: The rules do allow it, but your DM might not allow it, and personally if I am the DM I can't think of a reason to allow it consistently (i.e. not a one time thing for the lulz) because it seems just... cheesy?






    share|improve this answer





















    • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
      – mxyzplk
      2 days ago















    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted










    If you are using the optional rule mentioned there and your DM does not say "Nope you can't do this, too cheesy" using Rule 0, yes, you can. But yeah, the DM can veto this independent of the rules if he finds it too abusable.



    There are a few caveats here that might disappoint you, though.




    If a creature is providing cover for the missed creature and the attack roll exceeds the AC of the covering creature, the covering creature is hit.




    So, you only hit the invisible creature if you miss the original target and the attack roll exceeds the invisible creature AC. If the invisible creature has an AC higher than the target+2, for example, it actually becomes impossible to hit the invisible creature and attacking with disadvantage would be better (you always have at least a 0.25% chance of hitting). In other scenarios, it still might be better to attack with disadvantage than attack normally and only hit if you fail to hit the actual target.



    It's also unclear how the DM will rule the attack if your target is, for example, a wall. He could rule that you always hit the wall and not even roll an attack.



    Finally, your DM might ask you why you are targeting some random stuff (if it's an object) instead of the invisible creature (which presumably is the actual target). If your table is fine with this kind of metagame, it won't be a problem, otherwise you might have some hard time explaining why you decided to target the vase behind the invisible creature instead of trying to hit the actual creature.



    TL;DR: The rules do allow it, but your DM might not allow it, and personally if I am the DM I can't think of a reason to allow it consistently (i.e. not a one time thing for the lulz) because it seems just... cheesy?






    share|improve this answer





















    • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
      – mxyzplk
      2 days ago













    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    11
    down vote



    accepted






    If you are using the optional rule mentioned there and your DM does not say "Nope you can't do this, too cheesy" using Rule 0, yes, you can. But yeah, the DM can veto this independent of the rules if he finds it too abusable.



    There are a few caveats here that might disappoint you, though.




    If a creature is providing cover for the missed creature and the attack roll exceeds the AC of the covering creature, the covering creature is hit.




    So, you only hit the invisible creature if you miss the original target and the attack roll exceeds the invisible creature AC. If the invisible creature has an AC higher than the target+2, for example, it actually becomes impossible to hit the invisible creature and attacking with disadvantage would be better (you always have at least a 0.25% chance of hitting). In other scenarios, it still might be better to attack with disadvantage than attack normally and only hit if you fail to hit the actual target.



    It's also unclear how the DM will rule the attack if your target is, for example, a wall. He could rule that you always hit the wall and not even roll an attack.



    Finally, your DM might ask you why you are targeting some random stuff (if it's an object) instead of the invisible creature (which presumably is the actual target). If your table is fine with this kind of metagame, it won't be a problem, otherwise you might have some hard time explaining why you decided to target the vase behind the invisible creature instead of trying to hit the actual creature.



    TL;DR: The rules do allow it, but your DM might not allow it, and personally if I am the DM I can't think of a reason to allow it consistently (i.e. not a one time thing for the lulz) because it seems just... cheesy?






    share|improve this answer












    If you are using the optional rule mentioned there and your DM does not say "Nope you can't do this, too cheesy" using Rule 0, yes, you can. But yeah, the DM can veto this independent of the rules if he finds it too abusable.



    There are a few caveats here that might disappoint you, though.




    If a creature is providing cover for the missed creature and the attack roll exceeds the AC of the covering creature, the covering creature is hit.




    So, you only hit the invisible creature if you miss the original target and the attack roll exceeds the invisible creature AC. If the invisible creature has an AC higher than the target+2, for example, it actually becomes impossible to hit the invisible creature and attacking with disadvantage would be better (you always have at least a 0.25% chance of hitting). In other scenarios, it still might be better to attack with disadvantage than attack normally and only hit if you fail to hit the actual target.



    It's also unclear how the DM will rule the attack if your target is, for example, a wall. He could rule that you always hit the wall and not even roll an attack.



    Finally, your DM might ask you why you are targeting some random stuff (if it's an object) instead of the invisible creature (which presumably is the actual target). If your table is fine with this kind of metagame, it won't be a problem, otherwise you might have some hard time explaining why you decided to target the vase behind the invisible creature instead of trying to hit the actual creature.



    TL;DR: The rules do allow it, but your DM might not allow it, and personally if I am the DM I can't think of a reason to allow it consistently (i.e. not a one time thing for the lulz) because it seems just... cheesy?







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Nov 16 at 7:10









    HellSaint

    19.1k675157




    19.1k675157












    • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
      – mxyzplk
      2 days ago


















    • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
      – mxyzplk
      2 days ago
















    Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – mxyzplk
    2 days ago




    Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – mxyzplk
    2 days ago












    up vote
    1
    down vote













    No.



    Because disadvantage is a mechanic, not something you 'avoid' in-character. The roll is the same in either case. PCs do not have concepts of the mechanics as mechanics, unless you're playing Deadpool.






    share|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      No.



      Because disadvantage is a mechanic, not something you 'avoid' in-character. The roll is the same in either case. PCs do not have concepts of the mechanics as mechanics, unless you're playing Deadpool.






      share|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        No.



        Because disadvantage is a mechanic, not something you 'avoid' in-character. The roll is the same in either case. PCs do not have concepts of the mechanics as mechanics, unless you're playing Deadpool.






        share|improve this answer












        No.



        Because disadvantage is a mechanic, not something you 'avoid' in-character. The roll is the same in either case. PCs do not have concepts of the mechanics as mechanics, unless you're playing Deadpool.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 2 days ago









        MarkTO

        1,13216




        1,13216






























             

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