Development of diphtongs
Is there a specific reason for which diphthongs in German and English words like "mein" and "like" arose? It seems to be a pretty common phenomenon,but somehow it seems to be limited to germanic languages. The same question could apply to "Haus" and "House" etc.
phonology historical-linguistics
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
add a comment |
Is there a specific reason for which diphthongs in German and English words like "mein" and "like" arose? It seems to be a pretty common phenomenon,but somehow it seems to be limited to germanic languages. The same question could apply to "Haus" and "House" etc.
phonology historical-linguistics
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
add a comment |
Is there a specific reason for which diphthongs in German and English words like "mein" and "like" arose? It seems to be a pretty common phenomenon,but somehow it seems to be limited to germanic languages. The same question could apply to "Haus" and "House" etc.
phonology historical-linguistics
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
Is there a specific reason for which diphthongs in German and English words like "mein" and "like" arose? It seems to be a pretty common phenomenon,but somehow it seems to be limited to germanic languages. The same question could apply to "Haus" and "House" etc.
phonology historical-linguistics
phonology historical-linguistics
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
edited 1 hour ago
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
asked 2 hours ago
X30Marco
765
765
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Diphthongs are not limited to Germanic languages. It is pretty common in the languages of the world.
I can cite four phonetic aspects that lead to the outbreak of diphthongs. First of all, there are the diphthongs stemming from long vowels. This diphthongization is found in English (see: https://www.ling.upenn.edu/~kroch/courses/lx310/handouts/handouts-09/ringe/gvs-revised.pdf)
The other origin comes from the fall of a consonant. This lost consonant has allowed two vowels to merge together and if they have different qualities, they became diphthongs. This consonant can also be vocalized bringing about the same thing. Such a evolution can be found in Riffian (see: http://www.academia.edu/29199244/Tarifiyt_Long_Vowels_and_Diphthongs_Independent_Phonemes_or_Simple_Phonetic_Variants_of_the_Basic_Amazighe_Vowels_2004_)
The third case is when a vowel is stressed, a breaking vowel can occur. This process existed in old French, the stressed Latin vowels had been broken (see: https://halshs.archives-ouvertes.fr/halshs-00365006/PDF/vaissiere_1996_from_latin_to_modern_French.pdf)
The last phenomenon corresponds to the assimilation or coalescence. When two sounds are adjacent, in this case a vowel next to a consonant or vowel, and where one takes a feature from the other, that leads to a diphthongization. Hausa is a language where this kind of assimilation have been observed (see: https://scholarworks.iu.edu/dspace/bitstream/handle/2022/21060/HausaDiphthongs.pdf?sequence=1)
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
add a comment |
True. The other long vowels were raised but /iː/ and /uː/ can't be raised further. The diphthongization was surely partly a strategy to differentiate the raised /eː : oː/ from /iː : uː/ (chain shifts/ push/pull chain).
Why these whole significant vowel shifts happened though is a good question. It seems that vowels in Germanic languages are very unstable, which leads to the Germanic languages having very many vowel qualities. This may be related to the Germanic word stress.
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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Diphthongs are not limited to Germanic languages. It is pretty common in the languages of the world.
I can cite four phonetic aspects that lead to the outbreak of diphthongs. First of all, there are the diphthongs stemming from long vowels. This diphthongization is found in English (see: https://www.ling.upenn.edu/~kroch/courses/lx310/handouts/handouts-09/ringe/gvs-revised.pdf)
The other origin comes from the fall of a consonant. This lost consonant has allowed two vowels to merge together and if they have different qualities, they became diphthongs. This consonant can also be vocalized bringing about the same thing. Such a evolution can be found in Riffian (see: http://www.academia.edu/29199244/Tarifiyt_Long_Vowels_and_Diphthongs_Independent_Phonemes_or_Simple_Phonetic_Variants_of_the_Basic_Amazighe_Vowels_2004_)
The third case is when a vowel is stressed, a breaking vowel can occur. This process existed in old French, the stressed Latin vowels had been broken (see: https://halshs.archives-ouvertes.fr/halshs-00365006/PDF/vaissiere_1996_from_latin_to_modern_French.pdf)
The last phenomenon corresponds to the assimilation or coalescence. When two sounds are adjacent, in this case a vowel next to a consonant or vowel, and where one takes a feature from the other, that leads to a diphthongization. Hausa is a language where this kind of assimilation have been observed (see: https://scholarworks.iu.edu/dspace/bitstream/handle/2022/21060/HausaDiphthongs.pdf?sequence=1)
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
add a comment |
Diphthongs are not limited to Germanic languages. It is pretty common in the languages of the world.
I can cite four phonetic aspects that lead to the outbreak of diphthongs. First of all, there are the diphthongs stemming from long vowels. This diphthongization is found in English (see: https://www.ling.upenn.edu/~kroch/courses/lx310/handouts/handouts-09/ringe/gvs-revised.pdf)
The other origin comes from the fall of a consonant. This lost consonant has allowed two vowels to merge together and if they have different qualities, they became diphthongs. This consonant can also be vocalized bringing about the same thing. Such a evolution can be found in Riffian (see: http://www.academia.edu/29199244/Tarifiyt_Long_Vowels_and_Diphthongs_Independent_Phonemes_or_Simple_Phonetic_Variants_of_the_Basic_Amazighe_Vowels_2004_)
The third case is when a vowel is stressed, a breaking vowel can occur. This process existed in old French, the stressed Latin vowels had been broken (see: https://halshs.archives-ouvertes.fr/halshs-00365006/PDF/vaissiere_1996_from_latin_to_modern_French.pdf)
The last phenomenon corresponds to the assimilation or coalescence. When two sounds are adjacent, in this case a vowel next to a consonant or vowel, and where one takes a feature from the other, that leads to a diphthongization. Hausa is a language where this kind of assimilation have been observed (see: https://scholarworks.iu.edu/dspace/bitstream/handle/2022/21060/HausaDiphthongs.pdf?sequence=1)
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
add a comment |
Diphthongs are not limited to Germanic languages. It is pretty common in the languages of the world.
I can cite four phonetic aspects that lead to the outbreak of diphthongs. First of all, there are the diphthongs stemming from long vowels. This diphthongization is found in English (see: https://www.ling.upenn.edu/~kroch/courses/lx310/handouts/handouts-09/ringe/gvs-revised.pdf)
The other origin comes from the fall of a consonant. This lost consonant has allowed two vowels to merge together and if they have different qualities, they became diphthongs. This consonant can also be vocalized bringing about the same thing. Such a evolution can be found in Riffian (see: http://www.academia.edu/29199244/Tarifiyt_Long_Vowels_and_Diphthongs_Independent_Phonemes_or_Simple_Phonetic_Variants_of_the_Basic_Amazighe_Vowels_2004_)
The third case is when a vowel is stressed, a breaking vowel can occur. This process existed in old French, the stressed Latin vowels had been broken (see: https://halshs.archives-ouvertes.fr/halshs-00365006/PDF/vaissiere_1996_from_latin_to_modern_French.pdf)
The last phenomenon corresponds to the assimilation or coalescence. When two sounds are adjacent, in this case a vowel next to a consonant or vowel, and where one takes a feature from the other, that leads to a diphthongization. Hausa is a language where this kind of assimilation have been observed (see: https://scholarworks.iu.edu/dspace/bitstream/handle/2022/21060/HausaDiphthongs.pdf?sequence=1)
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
Diphthongs are not limited to Germanic languages. It is pretty common in the languages of the world.
I can cite four phonetic aspects that lead to the outbreak of diphthongs. First of all, there are the diphthongs stemming from long vowels. This diphthongization is found in English (see: https://www.ling.upenn.edu/~kroch/courses/lx310/handouts/handouts-09/ringe/gvs-revised.pdf)
The other origin comes from the fall of a consonant. This lost consonant has allowed two vowels to merge together and if they have different qualities, they became diphthongs. This consonant can also be vocalized bringing about the same thing. Such a evolution can be found in Riffian (see: http://www.academia.edu/29199244/Tarifiyt_Long_Vowels_and_Diphthongs_Independent_Phonemes_or_Simple_Phonetic_Variants_of_the_Basic_Amazighe_Vowels_2004_)
The third case is when a vowel is stressed, a breaking vowel can occur. This process existed in old French, the stressed Latin vowels had been broken (see: https://halshs.archives-ouvertes.fr/halshs-00365006/PDF/vaissiere_1996_from_latin_to_modern_French.pdf)
The last phenomenon corresponds to the assimilation or coalescence. When two sounds are adjacent, in this case a vowel next to a consonant or vowel, and where one takes a feature from the other, that leads to a diphthongization. Hausa is a language where this kind of assimilation have been observed (see: https://scholarworks.iu.edu/dspace/bitstream/handle/2022/21060/HausaDiphthongs.pdf?sequence=1)
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
edited 12 mins ago
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
answered 43 mins ago
amegnunsen
56127
56127
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
add a comment |
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
1
1
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
And there are also diphthongs that emerge when a consonant is vocalized.
– tobiornottobi
30 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
Yes, it is the case in Riffian, where the tap [ɾ] is vocalized as an open vowel. So a sequence "ir" or "ur" is carried out as diphthong.
– amegnunsen
17 mins ago
add a comment |
True. The other long vowels were raised but /iː/ and /uː/ can't be raised further. The diphthongization was surely partly a strategy to differentiate the raised /eː : oː/ from /iː : uː/ (chain shifts/ push/pull chain).
Why these whole significant vowel shifts happened though is a good question. It seems that vowels in Germanic languages are very unstable, which leads to the Germanic languages having very many vowel qualities. This may be related to the Germanic word stress.
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
add a comment |
True. The other long vowels were raised but /iː/ and /uː/ can't be raised further. The diphthongization was surely partly a strategy to differentiate the raised /eː : oː/ from /iː : uː/ (chain shifts/ push/pull chain).
Why these whole significant vowel shifts happened though is a good question. It seems that vowels in Germanic languages are very unstable, which leads to the Germanic languages having very many vowel qualities. This may be related to the Germanic word stress.
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
add a comment |
True. The other long vowels were raised but /iː/ and /uː/ can't be raised further. The diphthongization was surely partly a strategy to differentiate the raised /eː : oː/ from /iː : uː/ (chain shifts/ push/pull chain).
Why these whole significant vowel shifts happened though is a good question. It seems that vowels in Germanic languages are very unstable, which leads to the Germanic languages having very many vowel qualities. This may be related to the Germanic word stress.
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
True. The other long vowels were raised but /iː/ and /uː/ can't be raised further. The diphthongization was surely partly a strategy to differentiate the raised /eː : oː/ from /iː : uː/ (chain shifts/ push/pull chain).
Why these whole significant vowel shifts happened though is a good question. It seems that vowels in Germanic languages are very unstable, which leads to the Germanic languages having very many vowel qualities. This may be related to the Germanic word stress.
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
answered 1 hour ago
tobiornottobi
4008
4008
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
add a comment |
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
But why is there a need to differentiate in the first place?And could you please elaborate the part about the stress?
– X30Marco
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
If you don't differentiate sounds you can't transmit information. Speaking is similar to transmitting information digitally only base-40-ish instead of base-2. A computer distinguishes a one and a zero by different voltages, speech sounds are distinguished by sound frequencies. If 1 and 0 are the same, you can't transmit information anymore.
– tobiornottobi
1 hour ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Proto-Germanic switched from a Proto-Indo-European accent pattern to a very predictable strong stress accent on the first syllable of a word (stem). In all living Germanic languages the unstressed syllables have then become simplified in some way. In most very drastically and often up to an apocope of the final syllable. Before being simplified the final syllables could have an influence on the stressed syllables (Umlauts as foot – feet, de. Fuß – Füße, nl. vallen – vellen). Those were early changes clearly influenced by the stress accent.
– tobiornottobi
53 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
Without the stress difference between syllables, the weakly stressed syllables wouldn't have been simplified and we wouldn't have ended up with Umlauts and other additions to the vowel inventory. The raising and diphthongization of vowels is not as easily explained by the stress but it is a common denominator in the Germanic languages that has had its influence on the vowels.
– tobiornottobi
49 mins ago
add a comment |
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